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Continued from file ADV-1.ASC... 4AE-5.29 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? A. 22.3 kHz B. 76.2 kHz C. 31.4 kHz D. 10.8 kHz 4AE-5.30 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187? A. 22.3 kHz B. 10.8 kHz C. 13.1 kHz D. 76.2 kHz 4AE-5.31 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 2.7 microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 75.1 B. 7.51 C. 71.5 D. 0.013 4AE-5.32 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 4.7 microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 4.31 B. 43.1 C. 13.3 D. 0.023 4AE-5.33 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 4.468 MHz, the inductance is 47 microhenrys and the resistance is 180 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 0.00735 B. 7.35 C. 0.136 D. 13.3 4AE-5.34 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.225 MHz, the inductance is 3.5 microhenrys and the resistance is 10,000 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 7.35 B. 0.0319 C. 71.5 D. 31.9 4AE-5.35 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 8.2 microhenrys and the resistance is 1,000 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 36.8 B. 0.273 C. 0.368 D. 2.73 4AE-5.36 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 10.1 microhenrys and the resistance is 100 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 0.221 B. 4.52 C. 0.00452 D. 22.1 4AE-5.37 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 12.6 microhenrys and the resistance is 22,000 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 22.1 B. 39 C. 25.6 D. 0.0256 4AE-5.38 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 3 microhenrys and the resistance is 2,200 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 0.031 B. 32.2 C. 31.1 D. 25.6 4AE-5.39 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 42 microhenrys and the resistance is 220 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 23 B. 0.00435 C. 4.35 D. 0.23 4AE-5.40 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 43 microhenrys and the resistance is 1,800 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 1.84 B. 0.543 C. 54.3 D. 23 4AE-6.1 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current 4AE-6.2 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current 4AE-6.3 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 500 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 250 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 4AE-6.4 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 4AE-6.5 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 4AE-6.6 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current 4AE-6.7 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 4AE-6.8 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 250 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 500 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current 4AE-6.9 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 4AE-6.10 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current 4AE-7.1 Why would the rate at which electrical energy is used in a circuit be less than the product of the magnitudes of the AC voltage and current? A. Because there is a phase angle that is greater than zero between the current and voltage B. Because there are only resistances in the circuit C. Because there are no reactances in the circuit D. Because there is a phase angle that is equal to zero between the current and voltage 4AE-7.2 In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined? A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current 4AE-7.3 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.414 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 1.73 4AE-7.4 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.866 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.707 4AE-7.5 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.73 B. 0.5 C. 0.866 D. 0.577 4AE-7.6 How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 when the input is 100-V AC and 4-amperes is being drawn? A. 400 watts B. 80 watts C. 2000 watts D. 50 watts 4AE-7.7 How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 when the input is 200-V AC and 5-amperes is being drawn? A. 200 watts B. 1000 watts C. 1600 watts D. 600 watts 4AE-8.1 What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 158 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 39.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 251 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 4AE-8.2 What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 300 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 315 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 31.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 4AE-8.3 What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 18.75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 4AE-8.4 What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 37.6 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 237 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 23.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 4AE-8.5 What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 631 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 400 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 25 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 100 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 4AE-8.6 What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 800 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 12.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 1260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 4AE-8.7 What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with l20 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 601 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 240 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 60 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 379 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 4AE-8.8 What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 150 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 946 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 37.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 4AE-8.9 What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 317 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 2000 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 4AE-8.10 What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 252 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 63.2 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 632 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 159 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 4AE-9.1 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? A. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts B. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts C. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts D. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts 4AE-9.2 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts B. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts D. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts 4AE-9.3 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts B. R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts D. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts 4AE-9.4 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts B. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts C. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts D. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts 4AE-9.5 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts 4AE-9.6 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts 4AE-9.7 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? A. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts B. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts C. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts 4AE-9.8 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts D. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts 4AE-9.9 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts B. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts 4AE-9.10 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? A. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts B. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts C. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts D. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts 4AF-1.1 What is the schematic symbol for a semiconductor diode/rectifier [see graphics addendum]? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4AF-1.2 Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes? A. Junction and point contact B. Electrolytic and junction C. Electrolytic and point contact D. Vacuum and point contact 4AF-1.3 What is the schematic symbol for a Zener diode [see graphics addendum]? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4AF-1.4 What are the two primary classifications of Zener diodes? A. Hot carrier and tunnel B. Varactor and rectifying C. Voltage regulator and voltage reference D. Forward and reversed biased 4AF-1.5 What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode? A. A constant current under conditions of varying voltage B. A constant voltage under conditions of varying current C. A negative resistance region D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage 4AF-1.6 What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes? A. 2.4 volts to 200 volts B. 1.2 volts to 7 volts C. 3 volts to 2000 volts D. 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts 4AF-1.7 What is the schematic symbol for a tunnel diode [see graphics addendum]? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4AF-1.8 What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode? A. A high forward resistance B. A very high PIV C. A negative resistance region D. A high forward current rating 4AF-1.9 What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? A. Point contact diodes B. Zener diodes C. Tunnel diodes D. Junction diodes 4AF-1.10 What is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode [see graphics addendum]? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4AF-1.11 What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies? A. A varactor diode B. A tunnel diode C. A silicon-controlled rectifier D. A Zener diode 4AF-1.12 What is the principal characteristic of a varactor diode? A. It has a constant voltage under conditions of varying current B. Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage C. It has a negative resistance region D. It has a very high PIV 4AF-1.13 What is a common use of a varactor diode? A. As a constant current source B. As a constant voltage source C. As a voltage controlled inductance D. As a voltage controlled capacitance 4AF-1.14 What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? A. As balanced mixers in SSB generation B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply D. As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors 4AF-1.15 What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode? A. The peak inverse voltage B. The junction temperature C. The forward voltage D. The back EMF 4AF-1.16 How are junction diodes rated? A. Maximum forward current and capacitance B. Maximum reverse current and PIV C. Maximum reverse current and capacitance D. Maximum forward current and PIV 4AF-1.17 What is a common use for point contact diodes? A. As a constant current source B. As a constant voltage source C. As an RF detector D. As a high voltage rectifier 4AF-1.18 What type of diode is made of a metal whisker touching a very small semi-conductor die? A. Zener diode B. Varactor diode C. Junction diode D. Point contact diode 4AF-1.19 What is one common use for PIN diodes? A. As a constant current source B. As a constant voltage source C. As an RF switch D. As a high voltage rectifier 4AF-1.20 What special type of diode is often used in RF switches, attenuators, and various types of phase shifting devices? A. Tunnel diodes B. Varactor diodes C. PIN diodes D. Junction diodes 4AF-2.1 What is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor [see graphics addendum]? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4AF-2.2 What is the schematic symbol for an NPN transistor [see graphics addendum]? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4AF-2.3 What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor? A. Cathode, plate and grid B. Base, collector and emitter C. Gate, source and sink D. Input, output and ground 4AF-2.4 What is the meaning of the term ++++alpha++++ with regard to bipolar transistors? A. The change of collector current with respect to base current B. The change of base current with respect to collector current C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current 4AF-2.5 What is the term used to express the ratio of change in DC collector current to a change in emitter current in a bipolar transistor? A. Gamma B. Epsilon C. Alpha D. Beta 4AF-2.6 What is the meaning of the term ++++beta++++ with regard to bipolar transistors? A. The change of collector current with respect to base current B. The change of base current with respect to emitter current C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current D. The change in base current with respect to gate current 4AF-2.7 What is the term used to express the ratio of change in the DC collector current to a change in base current in a bipolar transistor? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Delta 4AF-2.8 What is the meaning of the term ++++alpha cutoff frequency++++ with regard to bipolar transistors? A. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration B. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration C. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration D. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration 4AF-2.9 What is the term used to express that frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor? A. Corner frequency B. Alpha cutoff frequency C. Beta cutoff frequency D. Alpha rejection frequency 4AF-2.10 What is the meaning of the term ++++beta cutoff frequency++++ with regard to a bipolar transistor? A. That frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor B. That frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor C. That frequency at which the grounded collector current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor D. That frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor 4AF-2.11 What is the meaning of the term ++++transition region++++ with regard to a transistor? A. An area of low charge density around the P-N junction B. The area of maximum P-type charge C. The area of maximum N-type charge D. The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N- type material 4AF-2.12 What does it mean for a transistor to be ++++fully saturated++++? A. The collector current is at its maximum value B. The collector current is at its minimum value C. The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value D. The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value 4AF-2.13 What does it mean for a transistor to be ++++cut off++++? A. There is no base current B. The transistor is at its operating point C. No current flows from emitter to collector D. Maximum current flows from emitter to collector 4AF-2.14 What is the schematic symbol for a unijunction transistor [see graphics addendum]? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4AF-2.15 What are the elements of a unijunction transistor? A. Base 1, base 2 and emitter B. Gate, cathode and anode C. Gate, base 1 and base 2 D. Gate, source and sink 4AF-2.16 For best efficiency and stability, where on the load- line should a solid-state power amplifier be operated? A. Just below the saturation point B. Just above the saturation point C. At the saturation point D. At 1.414 times the saturation point 4AF-2.17 What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and non-metallic characteristics? A. Silicon and gold B. Silicon and germanium C. Galena and germanium D. Galena and bismuth 4AF-3.1 What is the schematic symbol for a silicon controlled rectifier [see graphics addendum]? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4AF-3.2 What are the three terminals of an SCR? A. Anode, cathode and gate B. Gate, source and sink C. Base, collector and emitter D. Gate, base 1 and base 2 4AF-3.3 What are the two stable operating conditions of an SCR? A. Conducting and nonconducting B. Oscillating and quiescent C. Forward conducting and reverse conducting D. NPN conduction and PNP conduction 4AF-3.4 When an SCR is in the ++++triggered++++ or ++++on++++ condition, its electrical characteristics are similar to what other solid-state device (as measured between its cathode and anode)? A. The junction diode B. The tunnel diode C. The hot-carrier diode D. The varactor diode 4AF-3.5 Under what operating condition does an SCR exhibit electrical characteristics similar to a forward-biased silicon rectifier? A. During a switching transition B. When it is used as a detector C. When it is gated "off" D. When it is gated "on" 4AF-3.6 What is the schematic symbol for a TRIAC [see graphics addendum]? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4AF-3.7 What is the transistor called which is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal? A. TRIAC B. Bilateral SCR C. Unijunction transistor D. Field effect transistor 4AF-3.8 What are the three terminals of a TRIAC? A. Emitter, base 1 and base 2 B. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2 C. Base, emitter and collector D. Gate, source and sink 4AF-4.1 What is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode [see graphics addendum]? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4AF-4.2 What is the normal operating voltage and current for a light-emitting diode? A. 60 volts and 20 mA B. 5 volts and 50 mA C. 1.7 volts and 20 mA D. 0.7 volts and 60 mA 4AF-4.3 What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence? A. Reverse bias B. Forward bias C. Zero bias D. Inductive bias 4AF-4.4 What are the advantages of using an LED? A. Low power consumption and long life B. High lumens per cm per cm and low power consumption C. High lumens per cm per cm and low voltage requirement D. A current flows when the device is exposed to a light source 4AF-4.5 What colors are available in LEDs? A. Yellow, blue, red and brown B. Red, violet, yellow and peach C. Violet, blue, orange and red D. Red, green, orange and yellow 4AF-4.6 What is the schematic symbol for a neon lamp [see graphics addendum]? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4AF-4.7 What type neon lamp is usually used in amateur radio work? A. NE-1 B. NE-2 C. NE-3 D. NE-4 4AF-4.8 What is the DC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp? A. Approximately 67 volts B. Approximately 5 volts C. Approximately 5.6 volts D. Approximately 110 volts 4AF-4.9 What is the AC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp? A. Approximately 110-V AC RMS B. Approximately 5-V AC RMS C. Approximately 5.6-V AC RMS D. Approximately 48-V AC RMS 4AF-4.10 How can a neon lamp be used to check for the presence of RF? A. A neon lamp will go out in the presence of RF B. A neon lamp will change color in the presence of RF C. A neon lamp will light only in the presence of very low frequency RF D. A neon lamp will light in the presence of RF 4AF-5.1 What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone emission? A. 6 kHz at -6 dB B. 2.1 kHz at -6 dB C. 500 Hz at -6 dB D. 15 kHz at -6 dB 4AF-5.2 What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for a double-sideband phone emission? A. 1 kHz at -6 dB B. 500 Hz at -6 dB C. 6 kHz at -6 dB D. 15 kHz at -6 dB 4AF-5.3 What is a crystal lattice filter? A. A power supply filter made with crisscrossed quartz crystals B. An audio filter made with 4 quartz crystals at 1-kHz intervals C. A filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals 4AF-5.4 What technique can be used to construct low cost, high performance crystal lattice filters? A. Splitting and tumbling B. Tumbling and grinding C. Etching and splitting D. Etching and grinding 4AF-5.5 What determines the bandwidth and response shape in a crystal lattice filter? A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals B. The center frequency chosen for the filter C. The amplitude of the RF stage preceding the filter D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter 4AG-1.1 What is a ++++linear electronic voltage regulator++++? A. A regulator that has a ramp voltage as its output B. A regulator in which the pass transistor switches from the "off" state to the "on" state C. A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions D. A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current 4AG-1.2 What is a ++++switching electronic voltage regulator++++? A. A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current B. A regulator that provides more than one output voltage C. A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions D. A regulator that gives a ramp voltage at its output 4AG-1.3 What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A. A Zener diode B. A tunnel diode C. An SCR D. A varactor diode 4AG-1.4 What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring efficient utilization of the primary power source? A. A constant current source B. A series regulator C. A shunt regulator D. A shunt current source 4AG-1.5 What type of linear voltage regulator is used in applications where the load on the unregulated voltage source must be kept constant? A. A constant current source B. A series regulator C. A shunt current source D. A shunt regulator 4AG-1.6 To obtain the best temperature stability, what should be the operating voltage of the reference diode in a linear voltage regulator? A. Approximately 2.0 volts B. Approximately 3.0 volts C. Approximately 6.0 volts D. Approximately 10.0 volts 4AG-1.7 What is the meaning of the term ++++remote sensing++++ with regard to a linear voltage regulator? A. The feedback connection to the error amplifier is made directly to the load B. Sensing is accomplished by wireless inductive loops C. The load connection is made outside the feedback loop D. The error amplifier compares the input voltage to the reference voltage 4AG-1.8 What is a ++++three-terminal regulator++++? A. A regulator that supplies three voltages with variable current B. A regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant current C. A regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing transistors D. A regulator containing a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element 4AG-1.9 What are the important characteristics of a three- terminal regulator? A. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and voltage B. Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current and voltage C. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and maximum output voltage D. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage and maximum output current 4AG-2.1 What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier? A. Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle B. Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle C. Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the signal cycle D. Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle 4AG-2.2 What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff region? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D 4AG-2.3 What is the distinguishing characteristic of a Class B amplifier? A. Output for the entire input signal cycle B. Output for greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the input signal cycle C. Output for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle D. Output for 180 degrees of the input signal cycle 4AG-2.4 What class of amplifier is distinguished by the flow of current in the output essentially in 180 degree pulses? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D 4AG-2.5 What is a ++++Class AB amplifier++++? A. Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees of the signal input cycle B. Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle C. Output is present for the entire input signal cycle D. Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle 4AG-2.6 What is the distinguishing feature of a ++++Class C amplifier++++? A. Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle B. Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle C. Output is present for the entire input signal cycle D. Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees of the input signal cycle 4AG-2.7 What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class AB 4AG-2.8 Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class AB 4AG-2.9 Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class AB 4AG-2.10 Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class AB 4AG-3.1 What is an ++++L-network++++? A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors B. A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor C. A network used to generate a leading phase angle D. A network used to generate a lagging phase angle 4AG-3.2 What is a ++++pi-network++++? A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors B. A Power Incidence network C. An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor 4AG-3.3 What is a ++++pi-L-network++++? A. A Phase Inverter Load network B. A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors C. A network with only three discrete parts D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground 4AG-3.4 Does the L-, pi-, or pi-L-network provide the greatest harmonic suppression? A. L-network B. Pi-network C. Inverse L-network D. Pi-L-network 4AG-3.5 What are the three most commonly used networks to accomplish a match between an amplifying device and a transmission line? A. M-network, pi-network and T-network B. T-network, M-network and Q-network C. L-network, pi-network and pi-L-network D. L-network, M-network and C-network 4AG-3.6 How are networks able to transform one impedance to another? A. Resistances in the networks substitute for resistances in the load B. The matching network introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of an impedance C. The matching network introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of an impedance D. The matching network can cancel the reactive part of an impedance and change the value of the resistive part of an impedance 4AG-3.7 Which type of network offers the greater transformation ratio? A. L-network B. Pi-network C. Constant-K D. Constant-M 4AG-3.8 Why is the L-network of limited utility in impedance matching? A. It matches a small impedance range B. It has limited power handling capabilities C. It is thermally unstable D. It is prone to self resonance 4AG-3.9 What is an advantage of using a pi-L-network instead of a pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type transmitter and a multiband antenna? A. Greater transformation range B. Higher efficiency C. Lower losses D. Greater harmonic suppression 4AG-3.10 Which type of network provides the greatest harmonic suppression? A. L-network B. Pi-network C. Pi-L-network D. Inverse-Pi network 4AG-4.1 What are the three general groupings of filters? A. High-pass, low-pass and band-pass B. Inductive, capacitive and resistive C. Audio, radio and capacitive D. Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce 4AG-4.2 What is a ++++constant-K filter++++? A. A filter that uses Boltzmann's constant B. A filter whose velocity factor is constant over a wide range of frequencies C. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies D. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth 4AG-4.3 What is an advantage of a constant-k filter? A. It has high attenuation for signals on frequencies far removed from the passband B. It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies C. It uses elliptic functions D. The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can be varied 4AG-4.4 What is an ++++m-derived filter++++? A. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth B. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies C. A filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M" D. A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too near cutoff for a constant-k filter. 4AG-4.5 What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter? A. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies B. It only requires capacitors C. It has a maximally flat response over its passband D. It requires only inductors 4AG-4.6 What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter? A. It has a maximally flat response over its passband B. It allows ripple in the passband C. It only requires inductors D. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies 4AG-4.7 When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a constant-k filter? A. When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency B. When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that is too close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter C. When the number of components must be minimized D. When high power levels must be filtered 4AG-5.1 What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? A. It must have a gain of less than 1 B. It must be neutralized C. It must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome losses D. It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input 4AG-5.2 What are three major oscillator circuits often used in amateur radio equipment? A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback B. Colpitts, Hartley and Taft C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce 4AG-5.3 How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley oscillator? A. Through a neutralizing capacitor B. Through a capacitive divider C. Through link coupling D. Through a tapped coil 4AG-5.4 How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts oscillator? A. Through a tapped coil B. Through link coupling C. Through a capacitive divider D. Through a neutralizing capacitor 4AG-5.5 How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce oscillator? A. Through a tapped coil B. Through link coupling C. Through a capacitive divider D. Through capacitive coupling 4AG-5.6 Which of the three major oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment utilizes a quartz crystal? A. Negative feedback B. Hartley C. Colpitts D. Pierce 4AG-5.7 What is the ++++piezoelectric effect++++? A. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light 4AG-5.8 What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator? A. It is easy to neutralize B. It doesn't require an LC tank circuit C. It can be tuned over a wide range D. It has a high output power 4AG-5.9 Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO? A. Pierce B. Colpitts C. Hartley D. Negative feedback 4AG-5.10 Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO? A. The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance B. It can be used with or without crystal lock-in C. It is stable D. It has high output power 4AG-6.1 What is meant by the term ++++modulation++++? A. The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise ratio is reached B. Carrier rejection through phase nulling C. A linear amplification mode D. A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a carrier 4AG-6.2 How is an F3E FM-phone emission produced? A. With a balanced modulator on the audio amplifier B. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator C. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier D. With a balanced modulator on the oscillator 4AG-6.3 What is a ++++reactance modulator++++? A. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce FM signals B. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce AM signals C. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce FM signals D. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce AM signals 4AG-6.4 What is a ++++balanced modulator++++? A. An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation B. A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed carrier signal C. A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed carrier signal D. A modulator that produces a full carrier signal 4AG-6.5 How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated? A. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer D. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter 4AG-6.6 How can a double-sideband phone signal be generated? A. By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass filter B. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter C. By detuning a Hartley oscillator D. By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier 4AG-7.1 How is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined? A. Efficiency = (RF power out / DC power in) X 100% B. Efficiency = (RF power in / RF power out) X 100% C. Efficiency = (RF power in / DC power in) X 100% D. Efficiency = (DC power in / RF power in) X 100% 4AG-7.2 For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class C amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 1500- volts at the plate and 500-milliamperes plate current? A. 2000 ohms B. 1500 ohms C. 4800 ohms D. 480 ohms 4AG-7.3 For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class B amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 800- volts at the plate and 75-milliamperes plate current? A. 679.4 ohms B. 60 ohms C. 6794 ohms D. 10,667 ohms 4AG-7.4 For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class A amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 250- volts at the plate and 25-milliamperes plate current? A. 7692 ohms B. 3250 ohms C. 325 ohms D. 769.2 ohms 4AG-7.5 For reasonably efficient operation of a transistor amplifier, what should the load resistance be with 12-volts at the collector and 5 watts power output? A. 100.3 ohms B. 14.4 ohms C. 10.3 ohms D. 144 ohms 4AG-7.6 What is the ++++flywheel effect++++? A. The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the transmitter is turned off B. The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit C. The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified AC D. The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by several hops through the ionosphere 4AG-7.7 How can a power amplifier be neutralized? A. By increasing the grid drive B. By feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the input C. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to the input D. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to the output 4AG-7.8 What order of Q is required by a tank-circuit sufficient to reduce harmonics to an acceptable level? A. Approximately 120 B. Approximately 12 C. Approximately 1200 D. Approximately 1.2 4AG-7.9 How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power amplifier? A. By tuning for maximum SWR B. By tuning for maximum power output C. By neutralization D. By tuning the output 4AG-7.10 What is the procedure for tuning a power amplifier having an output pi-network? A. Adjust the loading capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor B. Alternately increase the plate current with the tuning capacitor and dip the plate current with the loading capacitor C. Adjust the tuning capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the plate current with the loading capacitor D. Alternately increase the plate current with the loading capacitor and dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor 4AG-8.1 What is the process of ++++detection++++? A. The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier to make an S-meter operational B. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal C. The modulation of a carrier D. The mixing of noise with the received signal 4AG-8.2 What is the principle of detection in a diode detector? A. Rectification and filtering of RF B. Breakdown of the Zener voltage C. Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode D. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency 4AG-8.3 What is a ++++product detector++++? A. A detector that provides local oscillations for input to the mixer B. A detector that amplifies and narrows the band-pass frequencies C. A detector that uses a mixing process with a locally generated carrier D. A detector used to detect cross-modulation products 4AG-8.4 How are FM-phone signals detected? A. By a balanced modulator B. By a frequency discriminator C. By a product detector D. By a phase splitter 4AG-8.5 What is a ++++frequency discriminator++++? A. A circuit for detecting FM signals B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals C. An automatic bandswitching circuit D. An FM generator 4AG-8.6 What is the ++++mixing process++++? A. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison B. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase differentiation C. Distortion caused by auroral propagation D. The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies 4AG-8.7 What are the principal frequencies which appear at the output of a mixer circuit? A. Two and four times the original frequency B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies C. The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency 4AG-8.8 What are the advantages of the frequency-conversion process? A. Automatic squelching and increased selectivity B. Increased selectivity and optimal tuned-circuit design C. Automatic soft limiting and automatic squelching D. Automatic detection in the RF amplifier and increased selectivity 4AG-8.9 What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches the mixer circuit? A. Spurious mixer products are generated B. Mixer blanking occurs C. Automatic limiting occurs D. A beat frequency is generated 4AG-9.1 How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver? A. As much gain as possible short of self oscillation B. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage C. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first mixer stage D. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage 4AG-9.2 Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only have sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage? A. To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being generated B. To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal C. To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products D. To prevent bleed-through of the local oscillator 4AG-9.3 What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver? A. To provide most of the receiver gain B. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC C. To improve the receiver's noise figure D. To develop the AGC voltage 4AG-9.4 What is an ++++i-f amplifier stage++++? A. A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier B. A receiver demodulator C. A receiver filter D. A buffer oscillator 4AG-9.5 What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency? A. Cross-modulation distortion and interference B. Interference to other services C. Image rejection and selectivity D. Noise figure and distortion 4AG-9.6 What is the primary purpose of the first i-f amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Noise figure performance B. Tune out cross-modulation distortion C. Dynamic response D. Selectivity 4AG-9.7 What is the primary purpose of the final i-f amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Dynamic response B. Gain C. Noise figure performance D. Bypass undesired signals 4AG-10.1 What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-10 [see graphics addendum]? A. Switching voltage regulator B. Linear voltage regulator C. Common emitter amplifier D. Emitter follower amplifier 4AG-10.2 In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R1 and R2 [see graphics addendum]? A. Load resistors B. Fixed bias C. Self bias D. Feedback See ADV-3.ASC for the remainder of this pool plus it's answers...